Question 1207212: prove that 【(n+1)^n】+1 is divisible by n^2 by using binomial theorem
Answer by Shin123(626) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Unfortunately, that is not true, since taking n=2 gives that 10 is divisible by 4, which is clearly false.
Did you mean instead? In that case, the statement is true, and the proof is as follows.
To show this, we can expand out with the binomial theorem. Doing so, we get . Note that all the terms after are divisible by (the second term is just ), so we have is congruent to 1 mod , which means that is congruent to 0 mod , aka is divisible by .
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