Question 128852
Sure, in the inverse function of f, every x becomes a y and every y becomes an x.  So, for instance, f(1)=-4+1, so f(1)=-3.  That means that f^-1(-3)=1, where f^-1 is the inverse function.  Here is how to find that function.
Change f(x)=-4+x to y=-4+x.  Then switch x and y, so it's x=-4+y.  Now solve for y, so it's y=x+4.  Change y to f^-1(x), and the inverse function is f^-1(x)=x+4.  You can try that example I gave to check: f^-1(-3)=(-3)+4, so f^-1(-3)=1, just like it should.