Question 1190689
0^0 = 1, by convention.
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That means some people made that decision.
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In 1752, Euler in Introductio in analysin infinitorum wrote that a0 = 1[15] and explicitly mentioned that 0^0 = 1.[16] An annotation attributed[17] to Mascheroni in a 1787 edition of Euler's book Institutiones calculi differentialis[18] offered the "justification"

{\displaystyle 0^{0}=(a-a)^{n-n}={\frac {(a-a)^{n}}{(a-a)^{n}}}=1}{\displaystyle 0^{0}=(a-a)^{n-n}={\frac {(a-a)^{n}}{(a-a)^{n}}}=1}
as well as another more involved justification. In the 1830s, Libri[19][17] published several further arguments attempting to justify the claim 0^0 = 1, though these were far from convincing, even by standards of rigor at the time.[20]
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I wouldn't argue with Euler.