<PRE><B>Question 1173977</B>
.


No,


BECAUSE &amp;nbsp;for every given value of &amp;nbsp;x &amp;nbsp;it defines &amp;nbsp;TWO &amp;nbsp;values of &amp;nbsp;y,


while a &amp;nbsp;TRUE function &amp;nbsp;MUST &amp;nbsp;DEFINE  &amp;nbsp;a &amp;nbsp;&lt;U&gt;unique value of y&lt;/U&gt;.



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