Question 1161983
can do with binomial, since very little remaining probability. This is pdf
p(44)=0.0077
p(43)=0.0035
p(42)=0.0015
p(41)=0.0006
P(40)=0.0002
cdf is1- binomcdf (60,.85,44) since we want 44 and everything less.
That is 0.9864 probability, the exact value

Normal approximation
The expected value is 51 (60*0.85)
the variance is np (1-p)=51(0.15)=7.65
sd is sqrt (V)=2.766
z>(44.5-51)/2.766=-2.35
probability is 0.9906 of z>=-2.36, a decent estimate