Question 1131107
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The future value *[tex \Large A] of an initial investment of *[tex \Large P] for *[tex \Large t] years at *[tex \Large r]% annual interest compounded *[tex \Large n] times per year is given by:


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ A\ =\ P\(1\ +\ \frac{r}{100n}\)^{nt}]


For the first guy, *[tex \Large P\ =\ 3000], *[tex \Large r\ =\ 5.6], *[tex \Large n\ =\ 1] and *[tex \Large t\ =\ 40]


For the second guy, *[tex \Large P\ =\ 5000], *[tex \Large r\ =\ 5.6], *[tex \Large n\ =\ 1] and *[tex \Large t\ =\ 20]


Then, the amount earned is *[tex \LARGE A\ -\ P]


You can do your own arithmetic.
								
								
John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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