Question 1118011
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Since f(0) = -1, you may substitute -1 instead of f(0) into  {{{f^(-1)(f(0))}}}.


Then you get  {{{f^(-1)(f(0))}}} = {{{f^(-1)(-1)}}}.


Now, since  -1 = f(0)  and f has an inverse function, it implies that  {{{f^(-1)(-1)}}} = 0.


Thus  {{{f^(-1)(f(0))}}} = 0.
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Solved.