Question 1095903
start with x^2 + 6y = 4


subtract x^2 from both sides of this equation to get:


6y = 4 - x^2


divide both sides of this eqaution by 6 to get:


y = (4 - x^2) / 6


offhand i would say yes because there is only one value of y for each and every value of x.


for example, assume that x = 2.


y = (4-4) / 6 which is equal to 0.


assume that x = -2.


y = (4-4) / 6 which is equal to 0.


you have the same value of y for two different values of x, but you don't have the same value of x for two different values of y, therefore y is a function of x.


the graph will show this to be true.


that graph is shown below:


give the graph the vertical line test and you will see that there is only one value of y for each and every value of x.


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