Question 1092372
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Let me show you another solution.


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1.  The quadratic function f(x) = (x-p)*(x-q)  is zero  at  x = p  (and x= q),  and goes 

    to infinity as  x ---> infinity  or  x ---> - infinity.

    Hence, there is a value of x, where the function f(x) takes the intermediate value of 2:  f(x) = 2.


    So, the equation f(x) really has the roots.


2.  The roots can not be x= p  or  x= q,  since at these values the finction is zero (and, therefore, can not be 2).
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Solved.