Question 1089167
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1.  Since f(-1) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x+1)    (the "Remainder theorem")


2.  Since f(3) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x-3).    ( due to the same reason )


3.  Therefore, f(x) is divisible by the product (x+1)*(x-3) = x^2 - 2x - 3.


4.  Option D) of your list.


5.  And no other options.
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<pre>
    My previous answer/response to this problem at the link
  
https://www.algebra.com/algebra/homework/Finance/Finance.faq.question.1089091.html

    was wrong and incorrect.


    Sorry for that.


    I deleted that response.
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