Question 1047933
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Is this statement true or false and why?

If you are given the 2 functions of {{{ f(x) }}} and {{{ g(x) }}} you can calculate(f ○ g){{{ x }}} only if the range of {{{ g }}} is a subset of the domain of {{{ f }}} 
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<pre>
1.  In order for calculate (fog)(x) for the given "x", g(x) for given "x" must lie in the domain of the function f.


2.  In order for calculate (fog)(x) for all x from the domain of the function g,  the range of g ("the image of g") 
    must lie in the domain of the function f.
</pre>


Your original statement is slightly ambiguous.
It is not clear, does it relate to all "x" from the domain of g, or only to a concrete given element "x".


But my response resolves all the questions.


I hope.