Question 1029976
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Not necessarily.  If both classes had the same number of students, then yes.  But the greater the disparity in the number of students between the two classes, the closer the overall average will be to the average of the class with the greater number of students.


Examples:


30 students in each class:


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \frac{30\ \times\ 82\ +\ 30\ \times\ 72}{60}\ =\ 77]


100 students average 82% and 20 students average 72%


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \frac{100\ \times\ 82\ +\ 20\ \times\ 72}{120}\ =\ 80\frac{1}{3}]


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it

*[tex \Large \ \
*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  

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