Question 1029972
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Depends on what is meant by *[tex \Large -1^2].  To me, such an expression is ambiguous and could mean either *[tex \Large -(1)^2] which would, indeed, be equal to *[tex \Large -1], or it could mean *[tex \Large (-1)^2] which is equal to *[tex \Large 1].


Now if you have an expression such as *[tex \Large -x^2], that is typically construed to mean *[tex \Large (-1)x^2] and is always *[tex \Large \leq\ 0] for all real numbers *[tex \Large x].  I surmise that the website you saw that made the assertion *[tex \Large -1^2\ =\ -1] was using the *[tex \Large -x^2] notation convention.


Please share the website url where you saw *[tex \Large -1^2\ =\ -1]


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it

*[tex \Large \ \
*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  

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