Question 1005956
Table of values (given)


<table border=1><tr><th></th><th>Male</th><th>Female</th><th>Total</th></tr><tr><th>Income over $50,000</th><td>485</td><td>385</td><td>870</td></tr><tr><th>Income below $50,000</th><td>65</td><td>65</td><td>130</td></tr><tr><th>Total</th><td>550</td><td>450</td><td>1000</td></tr></table>


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Let's calculate P(being male | the person earns over $50,000)



P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) = (# of males who earn over $50,000)/(# of people who earn over $50,000)


P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) = (485)/(870)


P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) = 0.55747126436781


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Let's calculate P(being male) 



P(being male) = (# of males)/(# of people)


P(being male) = (550)/(1000)


P(being male) = 0.55


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Summary so far:

P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) = 0.55747126436781
P(being male) = 0.55


We see that P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) &#8800; P(being male)


So the two events are NOT independent. If they were independent, then the probabilities above would be equal.


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Final Answer: <font color=red>Choice C)  No, P(being male | the person earns over $50,000) &#8800; P(being male) </font>