Question 984423
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Put both equations into slope intercept form, which is to say solve them for y in terms of everything else, thus:


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ y\ =\ mx\ +\ b]


When you simplify and reduce the fractional coefficients on x, you will notice that they are identical.  Then since the y-intercepts are different, you have zero solutions.  Graphically, they are two separate parallel lines.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it

*[tex \Large \ \
*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \