Question 983666
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If A can do 1 job in *[tex \Large x] time periods, then A can do *[tex \Large \frac{1}{x}] of the job in 1 time period, hence *[tex \Large \frac{d}{x}] of the job in *[tex \Large d] time periods.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it

*[tex \Large \ \
*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \