Question 646384
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Maybe.  It depends on whether I guess right as to whether or not the *[tex \LARGE m] or even the *[tex \LARGE m\ -\ t] for that matter, is in the denominator of the lead coefficient fraction.  The way you wrote the problem, it could be either way.  Re-post using parentheses to clearly define what goes where.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi}\ +\ 1\ =\ 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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