Question 615732
i don't believe so.
for x to be a binomial random variable, it has to follow the rules of a binomial distribution which state that the probability of a value x is determined by the binomial distribution equation.
the solution has to be based on a probability that it is x versus a probability that it is not x.
here's a sample binomial distribution:
n = 3
p = .3
q = 1-p = .7
p(x) = nCx*p^x*q^(n-x)
The probability of y occurrences of x is determined by this formula.
you then get a distribution that approximates the normal distribution.
the greater the value of n, the closer the approximation.
that is not the case with what cars people are riding home in.
that distribution has no rhyme or reason and would give you a totally different type of distribution.
based on that i say no.
i'm reasonably confident this answer is correct, but you should double check with somebody else before committing to this answer.