Question 601709
P(rolling a 1) = 1/6 


Let that probability be p.


Mean: 


mu = np


mu = 300*(1/6) 


mu = 300/6


mu = 50



So the mean number of 1's that should show is 50 (ie you should expect to roll a one on a single die 50 times)


-----------------------------


Variance


sigma^2 = np(1-p)


sigma^2 = 300*(1/6)*(1 - 1/6)


sigma^2 = 300*(1/6)*(5/6)


sigma^2 = (300*1*5)/(1*6*6)


sigma^2 = 1500/36


sigma^2 = 125/3


sigma^2 = 41.667


So the variance is 41.667