Question 581882
~q-->(p^~r)


~q --> (T ^ ~F)


~q --> (T ^ T)


~q --> T


T


So regardless of the value of q, the entire expression is true. Why? Recall that p --> q is only false if both p is true and q is false. But in this case, q is true. So p --> q is true (and the value of p doesn't matter)