Question 559631
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20 minutes is *[tex \Large \frac{1}{3}] hour, so, since Distance = Rate * Time, we can say the distance to work is *[tex \Large \frac{50}{3}] miles.


Then since Time = Distance / Rate, we can say the time to go *[tex \Large \frac{50}{3}] miles at 40 miles per hour is *[tex \Large \frac{50}{3}\ \cdot\ \frac{1}{40}\ =\ \frac{5}{12}] hours.


But since *[tex \Large \frac{5}{12}] hours is *[tex \Large \frac{5}{12}\ \cdot\ 60] minutes, you can caculate the number of minutes it will take.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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