Question 551023
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*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ f:\ m\ \to\ n\ \Leftrightarrow\ m\ =\ n^2\ +\ 1]


and 


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ f:\ n\ \to\ p\ \Leftrightarrow\ n\ =\ p^2\ +\ 1]


so


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ m\ =\ \left(p^2\ +\ 1\right)^2\ +\ 1]


You can simplify it for yourself I should hope.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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