Question 518599
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Completing the square is an inappropriate methdod for solving *[tex \Large ay\ +\ by\ +\ c\ =\ 0].  You just factor out the y:  *[tex \Large (a\ +\ b)y\ +\ c\ = 0], add -c to both sides:  *[tex \Large (a\ +\ b)y\ =\ -c], and then multiply by the reciprocal of the binomial coefficient on *[tex \Large y].


Had the problem been *[tex \Large ay^2\ +\ by\ +\ c\ =\ 0], then completing the square would have been absolutely the right thing to do.  But that isn't what you asked.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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