<PRE><B>Question 472426</B>
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You cannot write &lt;i&gt;&lt;b&gt;the&lt;/b&gt;&lt;/i&gt; equation of &lt;i&gt;&lt;b&gt;the&lt;/b&gt;&lt;/i&gt; line that has a *[tex \Large y]-intercept of 2.  In the first place, there are an infinite number of lines that have a *[tex \Large y]-intercept of 2, and each of them has an infinite number of equation representations.  The best that can be done is to write &lt;i&gt;&lt;b&gt;an&lt;/b&gt;&lt;/i&gt; equation that represents the &lt;i&gt;&lt;b&gt;family&lt;/b&gt;&lt;/i&gt; of lines with a *[tex \Large y]-intercept of 2.


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ y\ =\ mx\ +\ 2]


Where *[tex \Large m\ \in\ \mathbb{R}] represents any of the infinite possible slopes a line only described as having a *[tex \Large y]-intercept of 2 could have.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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