Question 462043
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7.  Nope.  You have 60 with neither, hence there are 40 that have one, the other, or both.  The number with one effect is 30 and the other is 18.  The sum is 48.  That is 8 more than the 40 you have available, so that must be the number of duplicates.  So there are 22 with only effect 1, 10 with only effect 2, and 8 with both.  22 + 10 + 8 = 40.  Answer: 8.


The rest are correct. 


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
My calculator said it, I believe it, that settles it
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