Question 370991
<br><font face="Tahoma">Let one number be x.  The other number is then (105-x). <br>

Then we have:<br>

{{{x*(1/2)=(105-x)*(1/3)}}} given<br>

{{{6*x*(1/2)=6*(105-x)*(1/3)}}} multiply by 6 on each side to eliminate fractions<br>

{{{3x=2*(105-x)}}}<br>

{{{3x=210-2x}}}<br>

{{{5x=210}}}<br>

{{{x=42}}}<br>

So if one number is 42, the other number would be 63.<br>

However, we are not quite finished, because we can also set it up this way:<br>

{{{x*(1/3)=(105-x)*(1/2)}}} given<br>

{{{6*x*(1/3)=6*(105-x)*(1/2)}}} multiply by 6 on each side to eliminate fractions<br>

{{{2x=3*(105-x)}}}<br>

{{{2x=315-3x}}}<br>

{{{5x=315}}}<br>

{{{x=63}}}<br>

And of course, if one number is 63, the other number must be 42.<br>

This proves that no matter which number you multiply by the fractions of 1/2 and 1/3, you will get the same answer.<br>

In other words, the two numbers will always be 63 and 42.<br>

I hope this helps!<br>