Question 326224
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The Future Value, *[tex \Large FV], of a one-time investment of *[tex \Large P] at *[tex \Large 100r] percent interest for *[tex \Large t] time periods compounded *[tex \Large n] times per time period is given by:


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ FV\ =\ P(1\ +\ \frac{r}{n})^{nt}]


Plug in your numbers:


*[tex \LARGE \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ FV\ =\ 3000(1\ +\ \frac{.06}{2})^6]


Get out your calculator and get to punching buttons.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
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