Question 312989
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Absolutely not.  Consider a rectangle that is 500 meters long and *[tex \Large \frac{1}{10}] millimeter wide.  This rectangle has a perimeter slightly larger than 1000 meters but an area that is only 0.05 square meters.  Then consider a rectangle that is 1 meter by 1 meter which only has a perimeter of 4 meters (250 times smaller than the first rectangle) but an area of 1 square meter (20 times greater than the first rectangle)



John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
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