Question 302885
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Both of these equations are in slope-intercept form with a zero intercept.  That means they both cross the *[tex \Large y]-axis at *[tex \Large x\ =\ 0], which is to say at *[tex \Large (0,0)].


If you don't believe that analysis, substitute: *[tex \Large y\ =\ -\frac{1}{2}x]  and *[tex \Large y\ =\ x] so *[tex \Large x\ =\ -\frac{1}{2}x] which is only true if *[tex \Large x\ =\ 0], which means that *[tex \Large y\ =\ 0], and the solution set is *[tex \Large (0,0)].






John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
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