Question 286349
To find the inverse of the function g(x), we will first rewrite it so that g(x)=y:

g(x)=(1/8)x+32
{{{y=(1/8)x+32}}}

An inverse function is simply one where the x and y values have been swapped. That means anywhere where there is an x, make it y, and anywhere you see a y, make it an x.

Step 1: swap the y and x values.

{{{y=(1/8)x+32}}}
{{{x=(1/8)y+32}}}

Now rearrange the equation so that y is isolated.

x-32=(1/8)y

Multiply both sides by 8:

8x-256=y
The inverse of g(x) is y=8x-256

f(x)=8x-32, so no, the inverse of g(x) is NOT equal to f(x)