Question 256979
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If she can do a job in *[tex \Large p] time periods, then she can do *[tex \Large \frac{1}{p}] of the job in 1 time period.  Therefore in *[tex \Large n] time periods, she can do *[tex \Large \frac{n}{p}] of the job.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
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