Question 250271
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Multiply the first equation by 3.  Multiply the second equation by -2.  That will leave you with coefficients on the *[tex \Large x] variables that are additive inverses.  Add the two equations term by term.  The coefficient on *[tex \Large x] in the resulting equation will be zero, thereby eliminating that variable.  You will be left with an equation in *[tex \Large y] that can be solved by ordinary means. (In this case, you don't have to do anything.  The results of the addition of the two equations leaves you with the value of *[tex \Large y] by inspection.)  Take the value of *[tex \Large y] and substitute it back into either of the original equations, then solve for *[tex \Large x].


The resulting values of *[tex \Large x] and *[tex \Large y] form an ordered pair *[tex \Large \left(x,\,y\right)] that is the exact solution of your system.  By the way, you do not have two systems.  You have two equations that form one system.


John
*[tex \LARGE e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0]
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