Question 174525
The problem can be solved by going back to basic principles.  Each cash flow is discounted back to the date of the computation by multiplying the cash flow by (1/(1+rate of return))^(number of years from the date of the computation to the date of payment.

So the discounted cash flows are:

3000*(1/1.1)^1
3000*(1/1.1)^2
3000*(1/1.1)^3
3000*(1/1.1)^4

The four discounted cash flows are added together

3000*(1/1.1)^2 + 3000*(1/1.1)^2 + 3000*(1/1.1)^3 + 3000*(1.1)^4

= 3000*[1/(1.1)^1 + 1/(1.1)^2 + 1/(1.1)^3 + 1/(1+.1)^4]

The sum of the 4 numbers in the brackets is called an annuity immediate.  There is a formula for annuity immediates and can be easily calculated.  This approach works because the cash flow each year is level.  Otherwise, the basic principle's approach always works.

Larry