Question 156166
Remember, if f(x) and g(x) are inverses of one another, then we can say that f(g(x))=x and g(f(x))=x. So this means that the answer is a) they are functional inverses of each other 



Note: we know nothing about f(x) and g(x). So we cannot just blindly assume that f(x)=g(x) or f(x)=g(x)=x without some evidence. So this rules our choices b) and c).