Question 150103
lets call the new price {{{new_price}}} and the old price {{{old_price}}}. Let's look at the statements one by one

<b>if a price is now 220% more than it was before</b>

Percentages are always over 100, so 220% is 220/100 = 2.2. That's of the old price though, so it is {{{2.2*old_price}}} more than the old price. So the new price is {{{old_price + 2.2*old_price = 3.2*old_price}}} 3.2 = 320/100 so the new price is 320% of the old price, yes.

<b>and what it was before is 31.25% of what it is now</b>

What is was before is {{{old_price}}}, and what it is now is {{{new_price}}}. To work out a percentage like this we divide the two things and times by 100. So what we need to do {{{100*old_price/new_price}}}. But we know that {{{new_price=3.2*old_price}}} from above, we substitute and get {{{(100*old_price)/(3.2*old_price)}}} There is an {{{old_price}}} on the top and bottom of this division, so it cancels to give 100/3.2 which is 31.25, so again the answer is yes.