SOLUTION: Is the LCM of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? Explain with an example.

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Question 824406: Is the LCM of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? Explain with an example.
Answer by stanbon(75887) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
Is the LCM of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? Explain with an example.
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LCM of 1 and 2 is 2
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Cheers,
Stan H.
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