SOLUTION: Suppose f is a function with range (-∞,∞) and g is a function with domain (0, ∞). Is it possible that g and f are inverse functions? Explain.
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Question 702823: Suppose f is a function with range (-∞,∞) and g is a function with domain (0, ∞). Is it possible that g and f are inverse functions? Explain. Answer by Edwin McCravy(20064) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! No, because the domain of a one-to-one function must be the
range of its inverse, and vice-versa, that is, the range of a
one-to-one function must be the domain of its inverse.
