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There is probably a cuter way to prove it,
invoking trigonometric identities and starting with <---> and <--->.
However, my head hurts trying to think of it,
so I will go the way that is more natural to me.
The inverse trigonometric functions and are defined in a manner that makes sense.
We know that and
There are infinite other angles with ,
but or
because it is defined as the angle between and (or between and )
That has for cotangent.
So
We also know that and
and or
because is defined with with a range of to ( to ).
So