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| Question 534682:  Consider a large bag of coins, consisting of only quarters ($0.25), dimes ($0.10), and nickels ($0.05). 40% of the coins are nickels, 35% are dimes, and 25% are quarters.
 Randomly select 5 coins from the bag. What is the probability that your selection is worth at least $1.00? (Note that the only way to make $1 with 5 coins is with four (4) quarters and one (1) other coin.)
 Answer by Edwin McCravy(20064)
      (Show Source): 
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Consider a large bag of coins, consisting of only quarters ($0.25), dimes ($0.10), and nickels ($0.05). 40% of the coins are nickels, 35% are dimes, and 25% are quarters. 
 
You must draw either 5 quarters of 4 quarters and a nickel or dime.
Suppose there are 100N coins consisting of 40N nickels, 35N dimes, and 25N
quarters.  Note: there are 75N non-quarters
The number of successes equals
the number of ways to draw 5 quarters is C(25N,5)
plus
the number of ways to draw 4 quarters and 1 non-quarter is C(25N,4)·(75N)
So the number of successes is
C(25N,5) + C(25N,4)·(75N)
 +  Put the (75N) in the numerator of the second fraction  +  We get a least common denominator of 5! by multiplying the second fraction
by    +    +    Factor the numerator:      The number of possible ways is the number of ways to select any 
5 coins from the 100N coins:
C(100N,5) =  So the probability is  ÷    ×    ×        The first fraction is  , exactly  .  
If N is large the next three are also very nearly  or  , and the last fraction is very nearly  , or 4.
So that is very nearly        That's not exact, but it is very close if N is large.
Edwin
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