Question 200002: Why does the base to the power of zero equal one?
Answer by RAY100(1637)   (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Just a brief review
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a = a^1,,,,,, a*a = a^2,,, a*a*a = a^3,,,,etc
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if we had a^3 /a^2 = (a*a*a) / (a*a) = a,,,,,or a^(3-2) = a^1 =a
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Now if we had a^3 /a^3 = (a*a*a) / (a*a*a) =1,,,,,,or a(3-3) = a^0
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Therefore we have a^0 = 1
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