Question 179194This question is from textbook
: Use De Morgan’s Laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent
(a) not(p and q), (b) not (q or not p)
I have:(a) if and only if not p or not q
(b)if or only if not q and p
I say these are equivalent.....This this a correct answer???
This question is from textbook
Answer by Mathtut(3670)   (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! the "~" means "not," the "^" means "and," and the "v" means "or."
So, we can write ~(p^q) = ~p v ~q
And we can write ~(q v ~p) = ~q ^ p
As you can see, these are not the same.
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