Question 173426: Given: the measure of angle one equals the measure of angle 4
Prove: the measure of angle 2 equals the measure of angle 3
This book does not explain these problems so i can understand them. it has showed me how to do proofs but i still cannot understand what i am supposed to do.
Answer by solver91311(24713)   (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Not having the diagram, there is no way to tell for certain, but I suspect that you need to demonstrate, either by use of the 5 postulates, or subsequent theorems already proven, that Angle 1 is equal in measure to either Angle 2 or Angle 3. Then show that Angle 4 is equal in measure to either Angle 3 or Angle 2. Then you can use the principle that things equal to equal things are themselves equal. If you know that a = b and c = d, then if you can demonstrate that b = c somehow, you know that a = d.
|
|
|
