SOLUTION: A man fires at a target six times; the probability of his hitting it each time is independent of other tries and is 0.40. (a) What is the probability that he will hit at least onc

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Question 1177792: A man fires at a target six times; the probability of his hitting it each time is independent of other tries and is 0.40.
(a) What is the probability that he will hit at least once ?
(b) How many times must he fire at the target so that the probability of hitting it at least once is greater than 0.77 ?
(c) Interpret your findings.

Answer by ewatrrr(24785) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!

Hi
Binomial Distribution:  p (will hit target) = .40  
P+%28x%29=+highlight_green%28nCx%29%28p%5Ex%29%28q%29%5E%28n-x%29+ 
(a) n = 6:  P(at least once) = 1 - P(x = 0) = 1 - .0467 = .9533
  1 0r 2 0r 3 0r 4 0r 5 0r 6
.1866 + .31104 + .2765 + .1382 + .0369 + .0041 = .9533

(b) n = 3   P(at least once) = 1 - P(x ≤ 0) = 1 - .22 = .78

Wish You the Best in your Studies.