You can put this solution on YOUR website! Hello, you must have learnt from your trignometric identities that.
Sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1 ---(1)
from equation 1,
sin^2(x)=1-cos^2(x) -----(2)
also, tan(x)=sin(x)/cos(x) ---(3)
now to prove that
sin(x)cos(x)tan(x)=1-cos^2(x),
we have that,
sin(x)cos(x)tan(x)
=sin(x)*cos(x)*sin(x)/cos(x)
=sin^2(x).
But sin^2(x)=1-cos^2(x) from (2)
therefore,
sin(x)cos(x)tan(x)=1-cos^2(x) as requred.
You can put this solution on YOUR website! sin(x)cos(x)tan(x)=1-cos^2(x)
sin(x)cos(x)tan(x)= sin^2
cos(x)tan(x)= sin
cos(x)*(sin/cos) = sin
sine = sine
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I've yet to see an example where working only 1 side makes a difference.
