.
1. Since f(-1) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x+1) (the "Remainder theorem")
2. Since f(3) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x-3). ( due to the same reason )
3. Therefore, f(x) is divisible by the product (x+1)*(x-3) = x^2 - 2x - 3.
4. Option D) of your list.
5. And no other options.
----------------
My previous answer/response to this problem at the link
https://www.algebra.com/algebra/homework/Finance/Finance.faq.question.1089091.html
was wrong and incorrect.
Sorry for that.
I deleted that response.