.
1.  Since f(-1) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x+1)    (the "Remainder theorem")
2.  Since f(3) = 0, then f(x) is divisible by (x-3).    ( due to the same reason )
3.  Therefore, f(x) is divisible by the product (x+1)*(x-3) = x^2 - 2x - 3.
4.  Option D) of your list.
5.  And no other options.
----------------
    My previous answer/response to this problem at the link
  
https://www.algebra.com/algebra/homework/Finance/Finance.faq.question.1089091.html
    was wrong and incorrect.
    Sorry for that.
    I deleted that response.