SOLUTION: which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x-3 has an inverse relation that is a function? a) The graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test b) f(x) is a one-to-one

Algebra ->  Inverses -> SOLUTION: which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x-3 has an inverse relation that is a function? a) The graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test b) f(x) is a one-to-one       Log On


   



Question 1039167: which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x-3 has an inverse relation that is a function?
a) The graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test
b) f(x) is a one-to-one function
c) The graph of the inverse of f(x) passes the horizontal line test
d) f(x) is not a function

Answer by Boreal(15235) About Me  (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website!
f(x) is a one-to-one function. That maps out one function to another, and it therefore passes both the vertical and horizontal line tests.
the inverse happens to be y=(x+3)/2
graph%28300%2C200%2C-10%2C10%2C-10%2C10%2C2x-3%2C%28x%2B3%29%2F2%29