SOLUTION: how can this be?
if a=b (multiply both sides by a)
a*a=b*a then
a^2=a*b (subtracting b^2 from both sides
a^2-b^2=a*b-b^2 (factoring)
(a+b)+(a-b)=b(a-b) (cancelling (a-b)
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-> SOLUTION: how can this be?
if a=b (multiply both sides by a)
a*a=b*a then
a^2=a*b (subtracting b^2 from both sides
a^2-b^2=a*b-b^2 (factoring)
(a+b)+(a-b)=b(a-b) (cancelling (a-b)
(
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Question 955414: how can this be?
if a=b (multiply both sides by a)
a*a=b*a then
a^2=a*b (subtracting b^2 from both sides
a^2-b^2=a*b-b^2 (factoring)
(a+b)+(a-b)=b(a-b) (cancelling (a-b)
(a+b)=b (since a=b)
2a=a (dividing by a)
2=1
How can this be??? I'm so lost Answer by Fombitz(32388) (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! At one point, you did this,
The next step was dividing by .
But and you can't divide by it, because division by zero is undefined.