Question 383660: Here's the question I am trying to solve:
"In a new study, women like shopping 128% more than men. Men like shopping what percent less than women."
I really think this may be a trick question. I don't think there is enough information to answer the question. Also, if it's a new study, and say 100% of women and men were surveyed, how can 142% like it more...that's over the base of 100%. I've looked at so many formulas trying to figure this one out. I think there needs to be another number in the question to come up with an answer.
I could see if they were comparing it to a previous study and were talking about a 128% increase.
Please let me know what your thoughts are.
Thank you soooooo much!!!!!
Renee
Answer by mtmorro(23)   (Show Source):
You can put this solution on YOUR website! Renee
The only way this can be possible is not the awnser being 128% more men is not factoring the percentage of the men or women. It would have to be factoring the percetage of women verces men..
lets use 128%
at first it is 16 out of 100 men and 16 out of 100 women.
Same people very next month say the following:
if 16 men like shopping of the 100 interviewed.
and out of the women 76 out of the women intervied.
16% men
76% women.. from 16%
It bases on this can be over a percent it is a play on words but possible
to have over 100% if it is facoring the amout not the percetage. Confusing but can be stated as a perctage a solid number.
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