.
Let me show you another solution.
1. The quadratic function f(x) = (x-p)*(x-q) is zero at x = p (and x= q), and goes
to infinity as x ---> infinity or x ---> - infinity.
Hence, there is a value of x, where the function f(x) takes the intermediate value of 2: f(x) = 2.
So, the equation f(x) really has the roots.
2. The roots can not be x= p or x= q, since at these values the finction is zero (and, therefore, can not be 2).
Solved.